im writing on here to see if anybody could provide me with any help, clarity, reassurance... anything really. I’m just so confused.
My Dad is 68 years of age and has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer. It’s all happened very suddenly... a standard blood test revealed an increase in PSA levels, and following that, last week he underwent a biopsy. He got the results back yesterday and they revealed he has a very aggressive form. His PSA is 19.58 and the biopsy has revealed a Gleason score of 9 (5+4) in 69% of the samples taken and a Gleason score of 8 (3+5) in 31% of the samples taken. I know that such scores mean aggressive and likely to spread quickly, so he is having a bone scan today and a CT scan tomorrow to see if and how much it may have spread elsewhere.
The doctor and nurse have told him that based on his Gleason scores he is not curable, but how can they be 100% sure of this if they haven’t yet conducted scans? Will they know from the biopsy alone that it’s spread?
Now for the most confusing part of all...
Yesterday the doctor and nurse told him that they believe he’s had prostate cancer since his early 50’s!!! We’re talking between 15 and 18 years ago?? Yet what I don’t understand and just cannot wrap my head around, is that my dad has always been super fit and healthy!! Like, REALLY fit and healthy and he has not displayed one single symptom of prostate cancer whatsoever. If he’s had it for that long, and if it’s such an aggressive form that has already spread, surely he’d have shown signs of something? I must also mention that 6 years ago he was diagnosed with bladder cancer which he was treated for (cauterisation but no chemo or other treatments) and he was successfully treated with no recurrence. He found out about his bladder cancer because he suddenly started peeing blood and finding it difficult to urinate... these are 2 classic signs of prostate cancer too, so why on earth was he not tested for this at the same time they tested for bladder cancer??? He was also admitted to hospital last year when breathing became difficult and lung scans / biopsies revealed fluid on the lung and calcification, which they though was lung cancer. It wasn’t lung cancer and turned out to be pleuritis. He was also found to have blood in his stool at 60 and he has had a colonoscopy twice a year for the last 8 years. He had polyps every time, but all benign.
My point is, through all of the colonoscopies and all of the cameras up the rectum amd urethra, how hasn’t his prostate cancer been detected long before now? And why hasn’t he even been tested for it given the high risk he’s been with the lungs bladder and bowel? With it being such an aggressive form of cancer then surely this wouldn’t have gone unnoticed?
im absolutely terrified and have no idea how to feel. I think I’m still in shock and numb. I love my dad so much, we’re like one and the same person and I can’t cope with the thought of losing him. Is it really likely that it’s spread elsewhere? His blood test revealed high levels of alkaline phosphatase which Iv read means bone cancer. And all I keep seeing is that five year life expectancy for secondary prostate cancer patients is 29%. Im frantic and I just can’t jnderstand how this has happened.
If anyone can give me anything at id appreciate it so much. Thank you all in advance